Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 03.07.2025 01:13

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why are so many people anti-Trump? People didn't like Obama either, but he was the president, so people didn't do this. What makes Trump different?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.